Why Were Isaac’s Blessings Necessary?

Rabbi Moshe Ben-Chaim & Dani Roth

Rabbi: Why was Eisav born so hairy? Why must Torah teach us this? Why was Jacob grabbing on Eisav's heel when he was born? What's the significance of this?  Why didn't Rivka tell Yitzchak to bless Jacob, but she fooled him instead?

Dani Roth: Why was the blessing so important anyway?

Rabbi:  Talmud (Sanhedrin 91a) begins to addresses your question:

The descendants of Ishmael and the descendants of Keturah came to judgment with the Jewish people before Alexander of Macedon. They said to the Jewish people before Alexander: “The land of Canaan is both ours and yours, as it is written, ‘And these are the generations of Ishmael, son of Abraham, whom Hagar the Egyptian, Sarah’s maidservant, bore unto Abraham’ (Genesis 25:12), and it is written, ‘And these are the generations of Isaac, son of Abraham’ (Genesis 25:19). Therefore, the land should be divided between Abraham’s heirs.”  

Geviha ben Pesisa said to the Sages, “Give me permission and I will go and deliberate with them before Alexander of Macedon. If they will defeat me, say to them, ‘You have defeated an ordinary person from among us, and until you overcome our Sages, it is no victory.’ And if I will defeat them, say to them, ‘The Torah of Moses, our teacher, defeated you, and attribute no significance to me.’” The Sages gave him permission, and he went and deliberated with them. 

Geviha ben Pesisa said to the descendants of Ishmael: “From where are you citing proof that the land of Canaan belongs to both you and the Jewish people?” They said to him, “From the Torah.” Geviha ben Pesisa said to them, “I too will cite proof to you only from the Torah, as it is stated, ‘And Abraham gave all that he had to Isaac. But to the sons of the concubines that Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts, and he sent them away from his son, while he yet lived, eastward, to the east country’ (Genesis 25:5,6).

[From this we say] in the case of a father who gave a document of bequeathal to his sons during his lifetime and sent one of the sons away from the other, does the one who was sent away have any claim against the other? The father himself divided his property!’”  Therefore, Israel (Canaan) belongs solely to Isaac and not Ishmael.

Dani, we see from this Talmudic portion that others will seek to claim Israel (happening today with the Palestinians), a land truly the inheritance from God, and the possession of Isaac alone, transferred to his son Jacob and to the Jewish nation. 

God knew this is how history will unfold, so He told Abraham that Isaac alone is his seed (Gen. 21:12), and that His treaty and gift of Israel is only with Isaac (Gen. 17:21). Abraham foresaw future contention over Israel, and therefore Abraham gave Isaac everything (Gen. 24:36), and no land to his other children from the concubines. Isaac too selected Jacob alone to receive God’s treaty, and knowingly gave that blessing to Jacob (Gen. 25:4). In addition to the land of Israel, and to further benefit Jacob and the future Jewish nation, God gave a prophecy to Rebecca (Gen. 25:23) to ensure Jacob receives Isaac’s blessings of the “superior son,” that Jacob be appointed as master over Eisav, which Isaac confirmed even after the ruse was exposed (Gen. 2:33). Thus, for the purpose of Jacob rightfully “stealing” the blessings which Eisav already sold to him, the deception was necessary. 

The blessings were needed for the world to accept whom God chose, also endorsed by the patriarchs: the authoritative determinators of bequeathal and inheritance. Others will attempt to claim Israel and Bible authority, seen with Christian claims of a “new covenant.” but God foresaw all this and implanted safeguards in Torah in the form of 1) His will, and 2) the will of the patriarchs. Therefore, Abraham's sending away of the concubines’ children indicates that only Isaac was his true heir. And Isaac’s blessings reiterate that Jacob is the sole heir of Israel, and of leadership.

Thank you Dani for your question.