| Israel vs Torah Moshe Ben-Chaim 
 
         
        Question:
        If morasha is mentioned only twice in the torah and the first
          mention is in regards to the land of canaan and then the torah..why is
          the strength of the land overlooked and not put on the same level as
          the torah?
  
        Response:
        It should be noted that the main difference between the land of
          Israel and the Torah is that the former is a means for fulfilling the
          latter. The Torah informs man of the ideas and commands to live by,
          whereas the land is merely a secured locale to perform these commands.
          As the Torah points out, should we forsake the Torah, Hashem will
          cause the land to vomit us out. The land of Israel serves no purpose
          of itself, rather, it realizes its goal with the inhabitant's
          fulfillment of the Torah's ideals.
        According to halacha, Jewish law, one is permitted to live outside
          the land for various reasons. Those reasons include if his livelihood
          is not in the land, or if his teacher is not in the land. From the
          fact that one may follow his teacher outside of Israel, we learn that
          man's goal is to perfect himself through study and the performance of
          the commands, not merely living in a country. Had dwelling in Israel
          been on par with Torah study, we would have no right to leave for
          study. Being that this is not the case, the law follows the idea that
          study is above all, as we say in prayer every morning, "Talmud
          Torah c'neged culam", "Learning Torah outweighs all other
          (performances)". Settling the land is for the very reason of
          offering a single, sovereign country which follows the Torah, and no
          other system.
         
        Your observation that "morasha" is limited to the land and
          Torah is a good one, and requires further investigation.
         
         
        
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